The Challenge: Simply
and honestly answer these questions - WITHOUT taking anything out of
context, mistranslating, or imposing a pre-conceived notion. (All
chapter and verse numbers are according to Christian bibles.)
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Why does the
subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews
1.5, this is Jesus?
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Why does the
speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if,
according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?
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Why does the
speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if,
according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28,
this is Jesus?
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Why is the
speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus)
declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a
sacrifice? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be
strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when
he’s on the cross?
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Why does God,
in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die
for his own iniquity” - immediately before introducing the new
covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t
that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”
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When does the
new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years
ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?
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Why will there
be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is
adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18;
Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)
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Why is Torah
law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all
the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse
and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)
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Why are the
Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a
curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)
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Why is no one
who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the
messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means
anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion
should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?
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Why does
“forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps.
119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)
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How can Jesus
be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not
have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?
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How can Jesus
be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through
Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer.
22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)
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How can Jesus
be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through
Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as
from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)
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How could both
Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired,
even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan
and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two
brothers have the same grandchildren?
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Why don’t the
genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1
Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?
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Why is Paul so
anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus
3:9-11)
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Why does
Hebrews 8.9 lie about what God said in Jer. 31.32?
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Why does
Hebrews 10.5 lie about what God said in Psalm 40.6?
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Why does 2
Corinthians 3 lie about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?
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Why does John
19.37 lie about what God said in Zech 12.10?
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Why does Romans
9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 lie about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?
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Why does Romans
10.6-8 lie about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave
out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14?
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Why does Romans
11:26-27 lie about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?
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Why does Matt.
12.21 lie about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out
what it really says - “He will not be disheartened or crushed until
he has established justice in the earth”?
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Why does Matt.
1.12 lie about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?
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Why does Matt.
2.6 lie about what God said in Micah 5.2?
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Why does Luke
4:18-19 lie about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?
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In Romans
9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which
tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea
1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?
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Why does Matt.
2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel
is God’s son?
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Where in the
Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,”
quoted in Matthew 2.23?
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Why are the
holy and inspired men of the New Testament so ignorant of the Hebrew
scriptures?
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Why doesn’t
Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it?
(Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)
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Why does Jesus
lie in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?
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Why does Jesus
change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 - declaring every legally
divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally
divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the
law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments,
and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of
heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)
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Why do most
Christian translators lie about what God said in Hosea 14.2, and
change His words, “take away all iniquity... that we may present our
lips as bulls” (demonstrating that prayer substitutes for sacrifice)
to “... the fruit of our lips?”
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Why do
Christians never mention verses like Hosea 14.2 or 1 Kings 8:44-52
or 2 Sam 12:13 or Lev. 5:11-13 or Ps. 32.5 or Isaiah 6.6-7 which
demonstrate that one does not need a blood sacrifice to have their
sins forgiven, or verses like Proverbs 21.3 or Psalms 40.6 or Hosea
6.6 or Psalms 69:30-31 or 1 Sam. 15.22 which say clearly that God
actually PREFERS other methods of atonement to blood sacrifice, or
Jeremiah 7:22-23 which goes so far as to say that God NEVER EVEN
COMMANDED US ABOUT SACRIFICES?
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Why are there
numerous stories in the torah of people who sinned, and were
forgiven through prayer and repentance - WITHOUT A SACRIFICE, such
as David in 2 Sam 12:13, or the city of Nineveh in Jonah - and not a
single story, ever, of someone who sinned and gave a sacrifice in
order to be forgiven?
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How can Jesus
be both the high priest (per Paul in Hebrews), who comes from the
tribe of Levi, and the messiah, who comes from the tribe of Judah?
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How can Jesus
be the Passover lamb for the gentiles, especially the uncircumcised,
if outsiders were forbidden to partake of it? (Ex. 12:43,45,48)
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Why is the New
Testament so concerned about the laws of the paschal lamb when it
comes to the 2nd half of Ex. 12.46 (see Jn. 19.36), but not at all
concerned with these laws when it comes to Ex. 12:
3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,44, the first half of 46, or 48?
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What good is
Jesus as a sin sacrifice to the intentional sinner, since (with one
exception, Lev. 6.2,3) the sin sacrifices were only for the
unintentional sinner? (Lev. 4: 2,13,22,27; 5:15,18)
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How can Zech.
12.10 be referring to Jesus’ crucifixion, as John 19.37 says it is,
when Zechariah is clearly describing an end-time apocalyptic war
that has not yet taken place?
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How can
Zechariah be making a “dual” prophecy, when according to the
Christians, this passage refers to God being pierced? Is he going to
be pierced again when he returns in glory?
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When was the
last supper - the seder night (the first night of passover) or the
night before? (Matt. 26.17-19, Mark 14.12-16, Luke 14.7-15, John
13.1-2)
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When did Jesus
die - the first day of Passover or the day before? (Matt. 26, Mark
14, Luke 22, John 18.28, 19.14)
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Why did God, in
Jer. 31.16, tell Rachel that her children would return, if He was
referring to the dead children in Matthew 2.16? Were they going to
come back to life?
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Why are the
nations putting their hands on their mouth in Micah 7.16, much like
in Isaiah 52.15? What is it that they’re seeing and being ashamed
of?
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Why did the
church put an unnatural chapter break between Isaiah 52.15 and 53.1?
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Why did the
Christian translators remove the two plural references to the
servant in Isaiah 53.8 and 9 and replace them with a singular form?
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Why does the
servant in Isaiah 53.10 have physical children (“zera”/seed) if it
refers to Jesus?
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If “zera”
really means spiritual children in Is. 53, why do all Christians
agree it means physical offspring in every other place in the bible
that it is used to refer to people?
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If “zera”/seed
really means “spiritual children”, which ONE of the world’s
Christians is the true child of Jesus, since according to Paul in
Gal. 3.16, “seed” refers to only one person?
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Why are there
many clear prophecies which state that Israel is despised and
afflicted, but none which say this about the messiah?
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Why is the
automatic Christian response to the problems of Isaiah 53 ALWAYS to
quote the rabbis they otherwise despise and mock and whose writings
they don’t believe in, that Jesus berated and Paul called “men who
turn away from the truth” (Titus 1.14)?
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Why did the
disciples not understand what Jesus was talking about in Luke
18:31-34 and Mark 9:32, if it was always common knowledge among the
Jews that the messiah was to suffer, die, and rise from the dead?
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Why did Jesus
make predictions that didn’t come true, if that’s a sure sign of a
false prophet? (Math. 16:38, Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27, Deut. 18:20-22)
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Why does God
the Father know something Jesus doesn’t know (Mark 13.32) if Jesus
IS the Everlasting Father, and the Mighty God, according to Isaiah
9.6?
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Why do
Christians translate the word “moshiach” correctly as “an anointed
one” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Daniel 9?
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Why do
Christians translate the word “ca’ari” correctly as “like a lion”
every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm 22.17?
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Why do
Christians translate the words “y’mei olom” correctly as “days of
old” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Micah 5.2?
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Why do
Christians translate the word “bar” correctly to “cleanliness” or
“purity” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm
2.12? Why is it that 5 verses earlier King David knew the correct
word for “son,” but not in verse 12?
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Why don’t
Christians translate “ha’almah” as “virgin” in Proverbs 30.19, if
that’s what it means? (What the four “ways” in vs. 19 have in common
is that they leave no trace, as evidenced by vs. 20 that follows.)
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Why did the
Septuagint authors use “parthenos” in Genesis to describe Dina who
had just been raped, if it means virgin according to messianic
authorities?
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If Isaiah 7.14
refers to the virgin birth of Jesus, via “dual prophecy” (since it
obviously can’t refer to him via the context), then whose was the
other virgin birth that occurred at the time of the prophecy?
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* Why are there
numerous prophecies about gentiles bowing and apologizing to the
Jews in the last days, and admitting they (the gentiles) have been
wrong, and not a single prophecy the other way around - of the Jews
apologizing to the gentiles - if it is indeed the Jews who are
wrong? (see my messianic prophecies list)
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Why are we
commanded NOWHERE in the Jewish scriptures to believe in the messiah
when he comes, if our salvation depends on it?
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Why do all the
prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled deal only with the PERSON
of the messiah, which the Torah barely mentions, and have nothing to
with the ACCOMPLISHMENTS of the messiah, which the Torah is very
specific about?
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Why is it that
all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things
that are of no practical advantage to anyone, and do nothing to
improve the quality of anyone’s life, while all of the prophecies
that he did NOT yet fulfill are all things that will be of
tremendous benefit to every individual on the planet, and all of
mankind as a whole? (For example, how does a virgin birth that
happened 2000 years ago, or Jesus’ being thirsty and being offered
vinegar, or being born in Bethlehem, or being killed with a robber,
or riding on a donkey, etc... help me out at all? How do any of
these “fulfillments” solve a single problem in my life, or anyone’s?
Yet, on the other hand, when there is world peace, and all the evil
people are gone, and all the sick are healed, etc... now THERE are
some messianic prophecies I can use!!! )
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Why is it that
all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things
that CANNOT BE PROVEN, while all of the prophecies that Jesus did
NOT yet fulfill, on the other hand, are all things that COULD NOT BE
DENIED IF HE HAD fulfilled them - even just ONE of them?
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Why is it that
the ONLY way to fit Jesus into the torah’s messianic prophecies is
through the use of extreme force? Why is one or more of the
following methods ALWAYS required? 1) taking verses out of context,
2) mistranslating, 3) placing a 2,000 year gap (at least) in the
middle of a verse - totally unjustified by the context - i.e.
sweeping any failure of Jesus to fulfill the scriptures under the
rug of the 2nd coming, or 4) making verses up? Why can’t the torah
ever just ONCE mention Jesus clearly, if it’s so important that we
believe in him?
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ARE ALL OF THE
ABOVE FACTS JUST TREMENDOUS, AMAZING, UNBELIEVABLE COINCIDENCES?
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If God changed
his mind about so many crucial things He said in the Torah, as
demonstrated above, and now wants us to believe in Jesus, why didn’t
he have the decency to come down to ALL of us, and endorse Jesus in
person to make it clear to us, as he came down to all 3 million of
us on Mt. Sinai to endorse Moses, to make sure we would believe in
the Torah forever? (Ex. 19:9.11,17, Ex. 24.17)
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Why does God
break one of His own commandments, “You shall not place a stumbling
block before the blind” (Lev. 19.14), since according to 2 Cor. 3.14
and 4.4 I am blind, and according to Rom. 9.32, 1 Peter 2.8, and 1
Cor 1.23, the above challenges are all part of “a stumbling stone?”
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Why does God
trick us, and present us with such tremendous difficulties as the
above questions, and then throw us into hell for rejecting an
apparent false god, who’s really not false, if “God our Savior
desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the
truth?” (1 Tim. 2.4)
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WHY IS THE
CHRISTIAN GOD SUCH A SADIST? AND WHY DO CHRISTIANS EXPECT JEWS TO
WANT TO EMBRACE HIM?
This list may be copied
and passed around, as long as credit is given to leeannesmailbox@aol.com,
who gives at least half of the credit to Rabbi Tovia Singer :)